Lesson 16: Yes, Christ Died For Sin Only Once And It Was At The Cross, Part 2
The following are posts I made to eBible Fellowship’s Facebook page in an attempt to show them the abundant evidence that Christ died to sins at the cross, not before the world was created. These posts were shared from 6/26/15 to 7/2/15. I was not allowed to continue posting and I have made reference to the last accepted post, and below that are all the posts that they missed. Needless to say, because of the truth, they believed Him not.
#1 6/26/15 & reposted on 6/28/15
Harold Camping pointed out how we must always approach the Bible with an open mind – not to forget what we have previously learned from the Bible – but to be open to the Holy Spirit’s guiding into truth so that we can be corrected by the Bible if we need to be. Until about three weeks ago, I believed that Christ died before the world was created and died again at the cross in 33 A.D. as a demonstration of what he did before the world was created. Through God’s grace, I see now that I was wrong: Christ died only once and it was at the cross. And I can prove it through the scriptures. We know the Bible defines its own terms and the phrase “from the foundation of the world” is listed several times in the Bible and by comparing them, we can learn (if God so leads us to open our spiritual eyes) what that phrase means. But that is only the beginning of the Biblical evidence. I know what I am saying sounds ‘radical’ and seems to be an impossibility to what we had been led to believe previously but the Bible refutes every point that has been stated in support of “the dying twice theory” and more. The Biblical Timeline is not altered by this new (yet old) revelation in any way and it is still true that God predestined those that he would save before the world was created. Chris has agreed to let me post 1-2 verses per day (so his task of looking into the Bible and responding isn’t overwhelming) to show this and I expect it may take several, perhaps many days to show this because I can only show a little at a time. Don’t be discouraged if you don’t see it right away; you may not be able to tell what kind of picture is in a jigsaw puzzle until you near the last piece.
#2 6/27/15 & reposted on 6/29/15
Revelation 13:8 which says,
And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.
Does this verse mean Christ was slain before the salvation of the world or does it mean He was foreordained to be slain at the cross as God’s plan which was conceived before the foundation of the world? Before you discount the latter possibility, consider the following verses:
4As for me, behold, my covenant is with thee, and thou shalt be a father of many nations.
5Neither shall thy name any more be called Abram, but thy name shall be Abraham; for a father of many nations have I made thee.
(As it is written, I have made thee [Abraham] a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were.
Was Abraham a father of many nations when God called him a father of many nations? Clearly not. This occurred even before his son Isaac was born. We might not think this is significant but Romans 4:17 tells us that it is significant because God is establishing a precedent that he can call things as if they had already happened before they occur. That’s because He is God and when He proclaims something will happen, it is an absolute certainty that it will come to pass. God uses language therefore that makes it seem that something happened when it didn’t happen at that time but was slated to happen with absolute certainty at a later time. Now let’s apply this concept to the verses in the Bible that use the phrase “from the foundation of the world.” First there is Rev 13:8 which we mentioned above. Using this precedent, “Christ slain from the foundation of the world” could mean that he was foreordained to be slain, or God’s plan was created before the foundation of the world and that plan was that Christ would be slain at some point in time (33 A.D.).
#3 6/27/15 & reposted 6/29
Let’s look at Revelation 13:8 again:
“And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. “
The word “slain” in this verse is Strong’s number G4969 and is not always translated in the past tense:
4And there went out another horse that was red: and power was given to him that sat thereon to take peace from the earth, and that they should kill one another: and there was given unto him a great sword.
The phrase “they should kill” is the same Greek word as in Rev 13:8 but is in the future tense. Therefore it could be that the King James translators transcribed rev 13:8 incorrectly and perhaps it should read:
“And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb to be slain from the foundation of the world. “
This would give this verse a whole new meaning and would harmonize with all the verses that plainly state that Christ paid for sins at the cross.
However, it certainly could be that it was translated correctly in the past tense, which would still harmonize with all the verses that plainly state that Christ died for sins at the cross because, as we have already learned,
God “… calleth those things which be not as though they were.” (Rom 4:17)
#4 6/27/15 & reposted 6/30/15
What other verses use this phrase “from the foundation of the world?”
47Woe unto you! for ye build the sepulchres of the prophets, and your fathers killed them. 48Truly ye bear witness that ye allow the deeds of your fathers: for they indeed killed them, and ye build their sepulchres. 49Therefore also said the wisdom of God, I will send them prophets and apostles, and some of them they shall slay and persecute: 50That the blood of all the prophets, which was shed from the foundation of the world, may be required of this generation;
Was the blood of the prophets shed before the foundation of the world? That’s not possible because they were not yet created to shed blood. Likewise the blood of Christ could not be shed until he obtained human form. What it must mean is that God foreordained the prophets’ blood to be shed throughout history, as each slain prophet lived at different times and were murdered by evil men at varying times throughout history. Let’s look at another one:
34Then shall the King say unto them on his right hand, Come, ye blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world:
Was the kingdom complete before the foundation of the world? Not according to this verse:
2In my Father’s house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you. 3And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also.
At the time Christ said this, the kingdom of heaven was not complete because there were still Elect that hadn’t been born and hadn’t yet received the Holy Spirit to become saved. Yet the kingdom was completed, we know, on May 21, 2011 as God finished saving all the Elect. Therefore “the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world” must be referring to God’s plan conceived before the foundation of the world which was to prepare a kingdom for His Elect.
26For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.
Did Christ suffer often before the foundation of the world? Even if you believe he died before the foundation of the world, then he suffered once. But if you consider that it refers to Christ suffering after the world was created, then it could be said that he suffered often, as Christ suffered often while he was present on this earth:
1 Peter 2:21-24
21For even hereunto were ye called: because Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow his steps: 22Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth: 23Who, when he was reviled, reviled not again; when he suffered, he threatened not; but committed himself to him that judgeth righteously: 24Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.
14Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; 15And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage. 16For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham. 17Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people. 18For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.
7Who in the days of his flesh, when he had offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto him that was able to save him from death, and was heard in that he feared; 8Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered; 9And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him.
Before I go any further, please look back at all the verses I underlined. Do you see how they all speak that Christ died for sins at the cross? And also look at Hebrews 9:26 again:
26For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.
When did he appear to put away sin? In other words, when did he pay the price for our sin? Clearly not before the beginning of the world as it says that he put away sin at “the end of the world”, which must be a reference to Christ dying on the cross as there is no other time that Christ could have paid for sins.
I realize what I referred to as underlined in my last post didn’t appear as underlined. That’s because I am limited in this venue and can’t use bold, italics or underlying, which is a hinderance because those tools do help convey meaning. Instead I will use single quotes around phrases that I want to bring to your attention. Let’s start with that and look at Hebrews 2:17 again
17Wherefore in all things ‘it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren’, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, ‘to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.’
Here it is clear Christ made himself human. Why? For a demonstration of what he did at the foundation of the world? No, “to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.” He came to die for sins when he came to earth and carried that out in 33 A.D.
Let’s look at 1 Peter 2:24 again:
24’Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree,’ that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.
Why shall we live? Because he “bare our sins in his own body on the tree.” There were no trees before the foundation of the world. This tree, we know, clearly refers to the cross made of wood and points out that this was the act that saved us.
Let’s look at Hebrews 5:7-9 again:
‘7Who in the days of his flesh,’ when he had offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto him that was able to save him from death, and was heard in that he feared; 8Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered; 9And being made perfect, ‘he became the author of eternal salvation’ unto all them that obey him.
“Who in the days of his flesh…he became the author of eternal salvation.” Also refers that Christ died for sins at the cross, not before the foundation of the world.
Let me take a little break at this point and say, I am not going to respond to all of your individual detractions because I feel that is quibbling. I don’t ask you to believe me. I am asking you to look at these verses and decide for yourself, after I present all the evidence for Christ dying on the cross for our sins that I have learned so far. So I am going to present these verses and what I believe they mean and let the Holy Spirit guide you into whether it is truth or not. In my opinion, we should all have that attitude.
I do want to address Chris’ point that Christ’s blood must be shed before any of the Elect could be saved. According to this line of thinking, Christ must have died before the foundation of the world, otherwise none of the Old Testament Elect could have been saved. This makes perfect sense from our human point of view because we are trapped in the dimension of time. But God is not trapped in time. Consider these verses:
9Remember the former things of old: for I am God, and there is none else; I am God, and there is none like me,
10Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure:
11Calling a ravenous bird from the east, the man that executeth my counsel from a far country: yea, I have spoken it, I will also bring it to pass; I have purposed it, I will also do it.
Christ declares the end from the beginning because He is almighty God. He knew everything that was to transpire on this earth from before He ever created it. From His standpoint, it is as if everything had already happened before it was created, and perhaps it had: what I mean is, perhaps He has the ability to transcend time and see every moment in time simultaneously. After all, He is omnipotent, is He not?
Another way of looking at it is when God says something will occur or plans something to occur, like Christ dying on the Cross several thousand years after the world was created, it is as good as done. Thus, God speaks in language as if Christ had already died before the foundation of the world. He shed His blood in 33 A.D. which counted to cover the sins of the Old Testament Elect because from God’s standpoint, it didn’t matter when it occurred, just that it occurred. What matters is that Jesus Christ was willing to humble himself, make himself human, and die for our sins. When He did so doesn’t matter to God because God is outside the boundaries of time. Since we know we must make everything in the Bible harmonize to achieve true understanding, this must be the case because of the verses that I will be revealing here soon that plainly and directly state that Christ died for sins at the cross.
Finally, what if there were a verse in the Bible that clearly states that Christ died at the cross to cover the sins of those that lived before his earthly ministry? Would you believe it then? Here it is:
Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God .
This tells us that all sins in the past; that is, all sins committed before Christ died on this earth in 33 AD, were paid for when Christ died on the cross in 33 AD. Sins could not have, therefore, been paid for from the foundation of the world. There were no sins that had been committed at that time because no people existed before the world was created. Remember in the beginning Adam and Eve were created without sin, as further evidence of this point.
Chris McCann quoted Hebrews 9:22
Hebrews 9:22 And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission.
“Its not my personal point of view that Christ’s blood had to be shed first, that’s what the above Scripture says. That’s the Word of God.”
You are using fallacious reasoning. I never said Christ didn’t have to shed blood. Of course He did or no one would have become saved. What I am arguing is when he shed that blood. I can see you are not yet able to grasp the concept that Christ could die for our sins on the cross in 33 A.D. and apply that redemption to any of God’s Elect at any point in time because God is not bound by the laws of time, just like he is not bound by the law of gravity or other physical laws. I was going to wait until tomorrow but I might as well share now the next post because it is pertinent to this discussion. Here it is:
Let’s look at yet another verse that contains this phrase “from the foundation of the world”:
3For we which have believed do enter into rest, as he said, As I have sworn in my wrath, if they shall enter into my rest: although the works were finished from the foundation of the world.
“The works” here refer to the works of salvation. That obviously refers to Christ giving his life as payment for the sins of His Elect. Yet that is not all “the works” refers to. Salvation also requires the Holy Spirit to enter into the heart of each of God’s Elect, which must be carried out at some point in each Elect person’s lifetime. That couldn’t have been completed before the world began because no humans had yet been born! Therefore, once again, the phrase “from the foundation of the world” must be referring to God’s plan to save each person and that plan was created before the world began, i.e., it was foreordained that each Elect person would receive the Holy Spirit in time and become saved.
Now consider this. What if I were to tell you there is a verse that directly contradicts Hebrews 4:3? Would you believe it? In other words, what if there was a verse that says the works were not finished from the foundation of the world in direct opposition to Hebrews 4:3? I looked and was absolutely amazed! Yes there is such a verse!
36But I have greater witness than that of John: for the works which the Father hath given me to finish, the same works that I do, bear witness of me, that the Father hath sent me.
Clearly “the works” were not finished when Christ made this statement during his earthly ministry. That’s because he had to die at the cross as payment for our sins. This is in direct opposition to what Hebrews 4:3 appears to say, that “the works were finished from the foundation of the world.” Yet we know Christ cannot lie. Therefore the verse that appeared to reference Him dying before the foundation of the world cannot be correct. Hebrews 4:3 must be referring to Him dying on the cross somehow. And, by God’s grace, I think I know how.
One way has already been pointed out: that Christ, who is God is not limited by time and can work outside of time (as has already been discussed) and can apply the redemption at the cross to any of the Elect any time in history before or after His death on the cross. Second, I believe there is another possible definition of the word “works” in that verse. Let’s try substituting the word “plans” instead and see what happens. And yes, there is Biblical justification for this as we shall see but that will have for tomorrow for the sake of brevity.
3For we which have believed do enter into rest, as he said, As I have sworn in my wrath, if they shall enter into my rest: although the plans were finished from the foundation of the world.
What is a plan? It is an intent to perform future work. More tomorrow.
This is the last comment I was allowed to post about this subject by eBible Fellowship. Below are all the future posts that I had prepared in advance and was going to share. This is what they missed:
Isn’t it also interesting that in the English language, another way of saying you are planning something it to say, “it’s in the works.” But I digress. Now for the Biblical evidence that we are justified in believing that the meaning of the word “works” in Hebrews 4:3 is really “plans.”
18Known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world.
The meaning? God knew his plans before the beginning of the world. You can see clearly in this verse that the word “works” is very closely related to God’s plans for this world. And here are some more verses that contain the word “works” that imply planning or predestination is in view. In all these verses, as in Act 15:18 also, it is the same Strong’s number for “works” (G2041) that we see in Hebrews 4:3.
3Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but that the works of [plans of] God should be made manifest in him.
4I must work the works of [plans of] him that sent me, while it is day: the night cometh, when no man can work.
37If I do not the works of [plans of] my Father, believe me not.
12Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also [plans that I carry out he shall do also]; and greater works [plans] than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father.
4I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work [plans] which thou gavest me to do.
2As they ministered to the Lord, and fasted, the Holy Ghost said, Separate me Barnabas and Saul for the work [plans] whereunto I have called them.
41Behold, ye despisers, and wonder, and perish: for I work a work in your days, a work which ye shall in no wise believe, though a man declare it unto you.
(Behold, ye despisers, and wonder, and perish: for I plan a plan in your days, a plan which ye shall in no wise believe, though a man declare it unto you.)
6Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work [plan] in you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ:
In these verses where we can substitute the work “plans” for “works”, we can do so because the work referred to is not yet completed. Work is referred to in the future tense and that’s what a plan is: work that is intended to be carried out in the future.
I have several more verses that prove Christ died for sins at the cross, not before the foundation of the world, but this will by no means be comprehensive of all the verses that show this. Let’s look at John 3:16:
16For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. 17For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.
Two things to address here. First notice it says “he gave his only begotten Son [once].” It does not say he gave his only begotten Son twice. In fact, nowhere in the Bible does it say Christ had to die twice. If that were so, there should be verses that say he died twice and there are not.
Secondly, I wish to address the issue of the begotten Son. We know that Christ became the Son when he died for our sins.
2Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
4And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead:
The logic here is that Christ only became the Son once He died for sins, and since Heb 1:2 points out that he was already the Son when he created the world, therefore He must have died from before the foundation of the world.
There is an alternate conclusion that can be drawn from this. Remember, we know God planned everything from the beginning as if it had already occurred and therefore could call Jesus the Son before the world was created even though he didn’t actually die for sins until 33 A.D. Remember Romans 4:17
…even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were.
Furthermore, we have the precedent of Genesis 17:5
…for a father of many nations have I made thee.
If God called Abraham the father of many nations before he actually was, He can also name Jesus the Son before He actually was, before he died for our sins and earned the title of Son in 33 A.D.
Let’s look at some other verses that show Christ died for our sins at the cross. I will look at several in rapid succession.
1 John 4:10
10Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.
Propitiation means he took conciliation for our sins. In other words, he paid for our sins. And when did he do this according to this verse. He “sent his Son” which can only refer to when Christ was sent to earth. That culminated after 3.5 years of earthly ministry with his death on the cross. That’s when He died for our sins.
27And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: 28So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.
Here it points out that Christ was offered once to die (“to bear the sins of many”), not twice. It doesn’t say ‘So Christ was twice offered, once to bear the sins of many and another time as a demonstration to teach us what he did the first time he died.’ Point made.
1 Cor 15:3-4
3For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; 4And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:
When did Christ die according to this verse? It must refer to when He died on the cross because right the second part of verse 3 says he was buried and rose on the third day. This is a clear reference that it is when Christ was on earth that he paid for our sins, when he died at the cross.
28Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for many.
Again “the Son of man came” can only refer to when he came to earth in human form. This is the time he “gave his life as a ransom for many.” In other words, that is the time he paid for sins, not before the foundation of the world. Note this verse does not say ‘that he came as a demonstration of how he gave his life a ransom for many before the foundation of the world.’ To do so is to read too much into this verse and not to see the obvious.
1 John 3:5
5And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
To “manifest” is to become apparent or to be made to appear. He became apparent when He adopted human form and, according to this verse, that is when he took away our sins, not before the foundation of the world.
When did Christ redeem them that were under the law? After he was made of a woman. Once again, this verse alone, proves that Christ died for sins at the cross and not before the foundation of the world, as so many others verses have already proven.
21And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
This is very similar to Gal 4:4-5. But notice the future tense of this verse: after Jesus was born of a woman shall he save his people from their sins. That’s because he obviously would die on the cross after he was born on earth. This verse does not say ‘and she shall bring forth a son…for he saved his people from their sins (from the foundation of the world).’
I have always wondered what the spiritual meaning of this Biblical passage was:
2And there was no water for the congregation: and they gathered themselves together against Moses and against Aaron. 3And the people chode with Moses, and spake, saying, Would God that we had died when our brethren died before the LORD! 4And why have ye brought up the congregation of the LORD into this wilderness, that we and our cattle should die there? 5And wherefore have ye made us to come up out of Egypt, to bring us in unto this evil place? it is no place of seed, or of figs, or of vines, or of pomegranates; neither is there any water to drink. 6And Moses and Aaron went from the presence of the assembly unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, and they fell upon their faces: and the glory of the LORD appeared unto them. 7And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying,
8Take the rod, and gather thou the assembly together, thou, and Aaron thy brother, and speak ye unto the rock before their eyes; and it shall give forth his water, and thou shalt bring forth to them water out of the rock: so thou shalt give the congregation and their beasts drink.
9And Moses took the rod from before the LORD, as he commanded him. 10And Moses and Aaron gathered the congregation together before the rock, and he said unto them, Hear now, ye rebels; must we fetch you water out of this rock? 11And Moses lifted up his hand, and with his rod he smote the rock twice: and the water came out abundantly, and the congregation drank, and their beasts also. 12And the LORD spake unto Moses and Aaron, Because ye believed me not, to sanctify me in the eyes of the children of Israel, therefore ye shall not bring this congregation into the land which I have given them.
Why did Moses smite the rock twice? Have you ever wondered about this? Let’s examine what this could mean.
First we know that rock signifies Christ:
1 Cor 10:1-4
1Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea; 2And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea; 3And did all eat the same spiritual meat; 4And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.
2 Samuel 22:47
47The LORD liveth; and blessed be my rock; and exalted be the God of the rock of my salvation.
1In thee, O LORD, do I put my trust: let me never be put to confusion.
2Deliver me in thy righteousness, and cause me to escape: incline thine ear unto me, and save me.
3Be thou my strong habitation, whereunto I may continually resort: thou hast given commandment to save me; for thou art my rock and my fortress.
We have just learned that Jesus died once for sins, not twice. The spiritual picture of Numbers 20:2-12 is that God is warning us during these end times to realize that Christ died once for sins, not twice. He was smote once, meaning he gave his life once.
It has been pointed out that Moses was not allowed to enter into the promised land of Canaan because he disobeyed God in this matter. Remember Moses’ instruction in verse 8: “speak ye unto the rock before their eyes”. Yet Moses didn’t obey this but smote the rock instead. God’s punishment of His trusted servant Moses seems harsh, does it not? God did so to get our attention as He recorded this event in the Bible. Yes it was harsh. Clearly, God was not pleased when Moses struck the rock twice and is in effect saying, “pay attention to this my children because there is an important lesson here.” What is in view is not only that Moses didn’t obey God, but also spiritually, striking the rock twice is meant as a correction for us to realize that Jesus died not twice but once. Nowhere in the Bible does it say that Christ should die twice nor once for sin before the foundation of the world and another time as a demonstration that he died for sin.
Here is another point to consider. Is the life of Christ, who is God, so cheap that his life could be offered more than once? Surely Christ, who is God, would only give up his life for the most important of reasons, which we know was to be the sacrificial lamb to cover the sins of his Elect. What other reason could or would be a valid reason for God to give up his life a second time? As a demonstration? To teach us? Really? Is teaching a valid reason for Christ to give up his life? Surely not! He can teach us without having to die for us, as he has done through His Word, the Holy Bible, who is Christ himself, throughout time. Isn’t that so? And in the Old Testament, God talked directly with the prophets, i.e., He didn’t have to give His life to teach them during the Old Testament, did He? And Christ’s Elect are still merely human sinners. Our life has no value. It is only Christ’s life that matters and if we are born again we are blessed with the indwelling of the Holy Spirit, and thereby we have life, even everlasting life. Again, nowhere in the Bible does it state that Christ had to die twice and a second time as a demonstration to us or to teach us what he had done previously. This idea came from the mind of man, not from the Bible. Also, by believing that Christ died twice means that the sacrifice of his life the first time must have been insufficient and therefore he had to die a second time. I guess God didn’t get it right the first time… as if He made a mistake. How arrogant of us to believe that he should die a second time merely as a demonstration and to teach us when there are no verses that indicate He had to die twice!
Although it is true that he had much to teach us when he came to earth and the result was the New Testament and so the argument has been made that that is the reason he had to come a second time, in order to teach us the New Testament. Of course it is true he had to teach us the New Testament…which He did He did during his earthly 3.5 year ministry which culminated with Jesus giving his life at the Cross. He died once for our sins and also taught us the New Testament during his life on Earth. He did it all at once during that 3.5 years. There was no need for Him to die a second time. As Brother Mike pointed out in his study: “But as I stated at the beginning, there are those who ignorantly and unknowingly want to change the gospel and say that it took place before the foundation of the world, and so make the earthly cross null and void.”
Now we know what Paul meant by the following verses:
1 Cor 1:18-24
18For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God.
19For it is written, I will destroy the wisdom of the wise, and will bring to nothing the understanding of the prudent.
20Where is the wise? where is the scribe? where is the disputer of this world? hath not God made foolish the wisdom of this world? 21For after that in the wisdom of God the world by wisdom knew not God, it pleased God by the foolishness of preaching to save them that believe. 22For the Jews require a sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom: 23But we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness; 24But unto them which are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God, and the wisdom of God.
We preach the cross (verse 1). We preach Christ crucified (verse 23). In order words, we preach that he died for our sins in 33 A.D., not before the world began. To do so is preaching of another Jesus:
2 Cor 11:3-4
3But I fear, lest by any means, as the serpent beguiled Eve through his subtilty, so your minds should be corrupted from the simplicity that is in Christ. 4For if he that cometh preacheth another Jesus, whom we have not preached, or if ye receive another spirit, which ye have not received, or another gospel, which ye have not accepted, ye might well bear with him.
Yet notice the last verse, verse 4. Paul is saying that if someone if proclaiming a false doctrine, that we should not condemn him, that we should bear with him. We should pray for that person, that the Holy Spirit would eventually lead him into truth. It does not mean that such a person isn’t saved, as some have proclaimed.
Finally for those that erroneously say that Christ died for sins from before the foundation of the world are denying the sacrifice He truly made on the cross. They call it a “demonstration.” This is a very serious matter. To deny that he died on the cross for our sins may be to deny Jesus himself:
2 John 1:7-11
7For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist.
Many will acknowledge that Jesus humbled himself to become human and came to this earth, but could this be a reference that refers to those that would deny He also died in the flesh? Look at these verses:
1 Peter 3:18
18For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
16They profess that they know God; but in works they deny him, being abominable, and disobedient, and unto every good work reprobate.
24Then said Jesus unto his disciples, If any man will come after me, let him deny himself, and take up his cross, and follow me.
3Beloved, when I gave all diligence to write unto you of the common salvation, it was needful for me to write unto you, and exhort you that ye should earnestly contend for the faith which was once delivered unto the saints. 4For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ.
The Bible has nothing but condemnation for those that would deny Christ. But again, if someone denies Christ, that person could still be one of God’s Elect because it could be that the Holy Spirit simply hasn’t corrected that person into truth yet. Or it could be that he or she truly is one of God’s Elect but may be incapable of understanding that truth. For example, the person could be mentally challenged yet still be saved by merely having heard the Word of God (but not understood it necessarily) because we know God is not a respector of persons. Likewise, different true believers may have different levels of understanding of the Bible. Furthermore, none of us have a perfect understanding of the Bible as the following verses point out:
1 Cor 13:9-10
23For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
Some summarizing points:
We must remember that Christ, who is the living God, is not bound by time, as I have already pointed out but it bears repeating because it is hard for us to understand for we live under the restraints of time. I think Brother Mike summarized it well in one of his studies (see Lesson 15):
“The problem in this argument is it fails to understand that God is not subject to time as we are, for He is outside of time, and this means that He is not subject to the laws of time. What I mean is that God can at one point enter into time to shed His blood for sin as He did on the cross in 33 AD, and because he is God and so not subject to the limitations and laws of time, He can take that blood and apply it to anyone at any time, past, present or future. This is, without question, mind boggling, but it is true.”
“So if you think that Christ’s shed blood in 33 AD cannot possibly be used to save someone thousands of years earlier, it is because you are thinking only within your own limitations of time. What you have done is put God in your box, and you are saying to the God of whom nothing is impossible that you are here trapped in my box. What you need to do is open your box, and realize that God is not subject to time, for He is outside of time, and this means He can shed His blood in time is not limited to a given time because God who shed His blood is not limited to or subject to the laws of time.”
And also remember:
Romans 4:17 (As it is written, I have made thee [Abraham] a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were.
As I have already pointed out but bears repeating, we have several passages in the Bible that make it appear that Christ died before the foundation of the world when he really didn’t. In other words, God called it as though it happened but it had not yet happened before the world was created: it happened at the cross. And God was able to apply his shedding of blood to all mankind, even those that lived before Christ came to earth, because he is not bound by time:
Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God.
When God says something will happen, it is a certainty it will happen. So certain, that it can be said to have already occurred:
“…and calleth those things which be not as though they were.”
One last comment. Although I am saddened for those that could not understand these true teachings of God, I am personally not troubled that eBible tried to silence me from proclaiming His Word. In fact, I rejoice that God has led me to follow Him rather than men.
10Blessed are they which are persecuted for righteousness’ sake: for theirs is the kingdom of heaven.
11Blessed are ye, when men shall revile you, and persecute you, and shall say all manner of evil against you falsely, for my sake. 12Rejoice, and be exceeding glad: for great is your reward in heaven: for so persecuted they the prophets which were before you.
1 Peter 3:14-18
14But and if ye suffer for righteousness’ sake, happy are ye: and be not afraid of their terror, neither be troubled; 15But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts: and be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear: 16Having a good conscience; that, whereas they speak evil of you, as of evildoers, they may be ashamed that falsely accuse your good conversation in Christ. 17For it is better, if the will of God be so, that ye suffer for well doing, than for evil doing. 18For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
27And when they had brought them, they set them before the council: and the high priest asked them, 28Saying, Did not we straitly command you that ye should not teach in this name? and, behold, ye have filled Jerusalem with your doctrine, and intend to bring this man’s blood upon us. 29Then Peter and the other apostles answered and said, We ought to obey God rather than men. 30The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree. 31Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins. 32And we are his witnesses of these things; and so is also the Holy Ghost, whom God hath given to them that obey him.